Comments on: Monthly Gleanings http://blog.oup.com/2007/11/bigot/ Academic insights for the thinking world. Fri, 10 Feb 2012 15:14:32 +0000 http://wordpress.org/?v=2.9.2 hourly 1 By: OUPblog » Blog Archive » Nobody wants to be called a bigot http://blog.oup.com/2007/11/bigot/comment-page-1/#comment-235341 OUPblog » Blog Archive » Nobody wants to be called a bigot Wed, 26 Oct 2011 12:30:10 +0000 http://blog.oup.com/2007/11/bigot/#comment-235341 [...] this ignominious word that I ascribe the frequency with which I am asked about its origin.  Rather long ago I wrote about bigot in the “gleanings,” but answers in the “gleanings” tend to be lost, while a [...] [...] this ignominious word that I ascribe the frequency with which I am asked about its origin.  Rather long ago I wrote about bigot in the “gleanings,” but answers in the “gleanings” tend to be lost, while a [...]

]]> By: Wander Frota http://blog.oup.com/2007/11/bigot/comment-page-1/#comment-94715 Wander Frota Sun, 02 Dec 2007 14:10:32 +0000 http://blog.oup.com/2007/11/bigot/#comment-94715 Dear Sir: I got eight questions... 1) Which one of these two came first: the Greek-derived Roman alphabet or the Scandinavian Futhark? 2) Could it be that the ABC sequence, as a notion, influenced the formation of the Futhark? 3) Did PIE have something like an alphabet notion, or was that very notion a product of Greek experience? 4) Isn't PIE an abstract notion itself that serves well to somehow justify modern linguistics etimological cul-de-sacs? 5) How about the role played by the Roman-Christian church, with its missionaries, in bringing literacy to the British Isles? 6) How does the fact of bringing literacy to a then barbarous, non-literate place affect life there, considering it was the Roman missionaries who brought literacy to Britain? 7) The so-called "original" British, were they of Celtic origin? 8) Did those British Celts come from the European continent (where they would have had previous contact with Latin) or were they autochthonous? Dear Sir:

I got eight questions…

1) Which one of these two came first: the Greek-derived Roman alphabet or the Scandinavian Futhark?

2) Could it be that the ABC sequence, as a notion, influenced the formation of the Futhark?

3) Did PIE have something like an alphabet notion, or was that very notion a product of Greek experience?

4) Isn’t PIE an abstract notion itself that serves well to somehow justify modern linguistics etimological cul-de-sacs?

5) How about the role played by the Roman-Christian church, with its missionaries, in bringing literacy to the British Isles?

6) How does the fact of bringing literacy to a then barbarous, non-literate place affect life there, considering it was the Roman missionaries who brought literacy to Britain?

7) The so-called “original” British, were they of Celtic origin?

8) Did those British Celts come from the European continent (where they would have had previous contact with Latin) or were they autochthonous?

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